Depends, if Laureano had to reach into the crowd and a fan deflects the ball -> no interference as it’s fair game if the ball is in the stands. If a fan deflects it and touches the ball in the field of play -> Fan interference, automatic out since Laureano was in the position to potentially catch it, runners move up at the ump’s discretion (probably would leave runners at the corners with a run scored depending on whether or not the runners were tagging up or if they were off the base)
This was actually explained really well in, ironically, the Steve Bartman game.
Edit: I just saw a comment about the Yankees play with Betts and want to clarify, in that case it was interference because Betts literally caught the ball and they ripped it out. It didn’t matter that he was in the stands because the ball was literally in his glove.
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u/ih-unh-unh Los Angeles Dodgers 2d ago
Out of curiosity, if the fan had reached out and touched the ball, would that have been fan interference?